01-03-2007, 03:53 PM
HELLO FRIENDS...I FOUND THIS ARTICLE WRITTEN BY i_witness....I HOPE HE DOESN'T MIND ME POSTING IT HERE AT THIS DB FOR ONES HERE TO READ...IT REALLY MAKES IT SO CLEAR JESUS HAS NOT COME YET EVEN IN THE SENSE OF HIS PRESENCE OR PAROUSIA THAT THE WTS HAS BEEN TEACHING THEIR FOLLOWERS THAT JESUS HAS BEEN PRESENT SCINCE 1914.....
YES....WE ARE TOLD TO LOOK FOR SIGNS OF HIS COMING....AND NOT FOR SIGNS OF HIS PAROUSIA...OR HIS INVISIBLE PAROUSIA....
COME LORD JESUS!!!!!!!!
Christ's "Presence" or "Coming"
— In the light of the Ancient Eastern text
We briefly looked at a few examples that provided evidence for Aramaic Primacy1 in the recent article "Was the “New Testament†originally written in Jesus’ language?" If, like me, you have come to the conclusion that the words of Jesus and his disciple were indeed originally recorded in Aramaic, you probably will be aware that teachings that relied on them speaking Greek will now need to be re-examined in the light of the Aramaic Peshitta.
One such teaching that relies on Greek Primacy is the Watchtower Society's claim that Jesus gave his disciples signs that would prove to them that he is invisibly "present". This teaching is unique to Jehovah's Witnesses; all other Christians believe that Jesus gave the disciples signs for his "coming". In this article we will look at how the use of the term "parousia" in the Greek texts compares with what the Peshitta says in the same scriptures.
In the scriptures that we're going to examine below I first present the reading according to the "New World Translation" (NWT)2 then the interlinear English as found under the Greek words in the "Kingdom Interlinear" (K. Int.)2 and lastly the rendering according to the "Lamsa Translation" of the Peshitta. For the "Kingdom Interlinear" the words in brackets represent a transliteration of the Greek words. The brackets within the Lamsa quotes contain the original Aramaic words in Hebrew script, and a transliteration of the consonants. [The lowercase letters do not represent separate Aramaic letters but are added because some characters in Aramaic can not be transliterated with one single English character.]
Hebrew and Aramaic words often have attachments in the form of prefixes and suffixes that express the tense of a verb or refer to the persons involved in the action. I have rendered the equivalent translations of the complete Aramaic words in italics but the basic roots of the words in bold type. To make root letters that recur throughout the examples stand out, I have rendered them in maroon. The first text we will look at is 1 Timothy 3:14.
1 Timothy 3:14
NWT: I am writing you these things, though I am hoping to come to you shortly.
K. Int: These (things) to you I am writing, hoping to come [elthein] toward you in quickness.
Lamsa: These things I write to you, although hoping to come [××ª× / AThA]3 to you shortly.
This verse is very straightforward and introduces us to the Aramaic word "AThA" which is the verb "to come". The Greek uses "elthein" but other renderings are equally possible as the following scripture shows:
Matthew 11:3
NWT: Are you the Coming One, or are we to expect a different one?
K. Int: You are the (one) coming [erkhomenos] or different (one) are we expecting?
Lamsa: Are you the one who is to come [ד××ª× / DAThA]3, or are we to expect another?
This text presents no problems. The Peshitta uses a form of the verb "to come" here and the Greek text conveys the same idea as the Aramaic. Note the two root letters×ת that occur in all Aramaic words that are based on the verb "to come". Now let us look at the wording of Matthew 24:46.
Matthew 24:46
NWT: Happy is that slave if his master on arriving finds him doing so.
K. Int: Happy the slave that whom having come [elthon] the lord of him will find thus doing.
Lamsa: Blessed is that servant, when his Lord comes [×“× ××ª× / DNAThA] and finds him so doing.
Here the Greek again reflects the fact that the original text used a form of the Aramaic verb "ATA", "to come". Notice what verse 47 says about the further appointment of the "faithful and discreet slave": "Truly I say to YOU, He will appoint him over all his belongings". When Jesus comes in Kingdom power, "all his belongings" will include "the kingdom of the world" (Revelation 11:15). Obviously the slave has not yet been appointed over "the kingdom of the world" indicating that the further appointment has not yet taken place and that Jesus' coming is still future. In the next scripture we will look at the Aramaic word for "coming":
Acts 7:52
NWT: ... who made announcement in advance concerning the coming of the righteous One
K. Int: ... having announced beforehand about the coming [eleuseos] of the righteous (one)
Lamsa: ... who foretold the coming [מ×תיתה / MAThYThH] of the Righteous One
In this scripture the translator seems to have understood the proper meaning of "MAThYThA"4 as "coming" and has translated it as such. Having acquainted ourselves with the Greek and Aramaic words for "to come" and "coming" we will now compare these with "parousia":
Matthew 24:3
NWT: ... what will be the sign of your presence and of the conclusion of the system of things?
K. Int: ... what the sign of the your presence [parousias] and of conclusion of the age?
Lamsa: ... what is the sign of your coming [דמ×תיתך / DMAThYThKh], and of the end of the world?
Please note that the Greek word for presence, "parousia" is very different from the other Greek words that indicate coming [erkhomenos, elthon, eleuseos, elthein]. In the hypothetical case that the Peshitta were a translation from the Greek, it would be very unlikely that "parousia" would be confused with words for "coming". The reverse however is not true. The Peshitta here uses a form of the word for coming, "MAThYThA", but there exists one other word, "MAThYA", that resembles it a lot and can mean presence. It is easy to see how the Greek translators could confuse the two terms, causing mistranslations.
Also note that the reading in the Peshitta is very straightforward. The disciples were asking Jesus for a sign that would indicate both "his coming" and "the end of the world". In answer Jesus provided them with the signs that would lead up to his "coming" and the subsequent "end of the world". We will now look at an example of the use of "MAThYA":
2 Corinthians 10:10
NWT: For, say they: [His] letters are weighty and forceful, but [his] presence in person is weak
K. Int: because The letters indeed, say they, weighty and strong, the but presence [parousia] of the body weak
Lamsa: For there are men who say that his epistles are weighty and powerful; but his bodily appearance [מ×תיה / MAThYH]5 is weak...
According to Lamsa this text is referring to Paul's "bodily appearance". The Greek translation "parousia" or "presence" for the Aramaic term "MAThYH" is possible but probably not what the apostle had in mind, because in the very next verse he uses the proper Aramaic word taken from the root for "being present / near":
2 Corinthians 10:11
NWT: that what we are in our word by letters when absent, such we shall also be in action when present.
K. Int: that of what sort we are to the word through letters being absent, such (ones) also being alongside [parontes] to the work.
Lamsa: that just as we express ourselves in our epistles when we are away, so are we also in deed when we are present [×“×§×¨×™×‘×™× ×Ÿ / DQRYBYNN].
From the contrast with "absent" it is fairly obvious here that "DQRYBYNN" is a term that refers to being "present" and is related to "presence". In Greek the term "parontes" is used which is related to the Greek term for "presence", "parousia". The next scripture is even clearer:
Philippians 2:12
NWT: ... not during my presence only, but now much more readily during my absence ...
K. Int: ... not as in the presence [parousia] of me only but now to much rather in the absence [apousia] of me...
Lamsa: ... not only in my presence [קריב / QRYB], but much more in my absence [רחיק / RChYQ] ...
Both the Greek and the Aramaic convey the idea of "being present". It is clear that when the Aramaic writer wanted to express "nearness" or "presence" he used the word "QRYB". It is telling that in connection with Jesus' coming this word is never used but always a form of the word "MAThYThA" as is again demonstrated by the next scripture:
1 Thessalonians 3:13
NWT: ... unblamable in holiness before our God and Father at the presence of our Lord Jesus with all his holy ones.
K. Int: ... unblamable in holiness in front of the God and Father of us in the presence [en tei parousia] of the Lord of us Jesus with all the holy (ones) of him.
Lamsa: ... without blemish in holiness before God our Father at the coming [במ×תיתה / BMAThYThH]of our Lord Jesus Christ with all his saints.
There are a few things to be noticed in this scripture. Firstly in the Kingdom Interlinear it contains both the expressions "in front of" and "in the presence of". Since these are equivalent expressions this at first gives the impression of being in the presence of both God and Jesus and all the holy ones. This does not necessary imply a time period, but the NWT renders it to fit the time period of Jesus "presence". This however causes a bit of a problem because the second thing to notice in this scripture is the expression "with all his holy ones". This expression implies the moment when Jehovah and Jesus are coming to execute judgement at Armageddon. This is seen from such texts as Zechariah 14:5, Matthew 16:27, Matthew 25:31-32 and Jude 1:14-15. Again we see that the Peshitta is consistent in its use of "MAThYThA" when speaking of the "coming" of Jesus "with all his saints".
But some may say "Doesn't 2 Thessalonians 2:8, 9 speak of Jesus' presence being manifested?" Let us then examine whether this text has been understood correctly:
2 Thessalonians 2:8-9
NWT: Then, indeed, the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will do away with by the spirit of his mouth and bring to nothing by the manifestation of his presence. 9 But the lawless one’s presence is according to the operation of Satan with every powerful work and lying signs and portents.
K. Int: And then will be revealed the lawless (one), whom the Lord Jesus will take up to the spirit of the mouth of him and will make ineffective to the manifestation of the presence [parousias] of him, 9 of whom is the presence [parousia] according to working within of the Satan in all power and to signs and to portents of lie.
Lamsa: Then shall the Wicked One be exposed, that one whom our Lord Jesus shall consume with the spirit of his mouth and shall destroy with the revelation of his coming [דמ×תיתה / DMAThYThH], 9 Even he whose coming [מ×תיתה / MAThYThH] is due to the working of Satan, with all power and signs and lying wonders.
The NWT presents these texts as referring to two different "presences", implying that Jesus' presence is 'invisible' and needs to be 'manifested.' However the use of the word 'but' as if there is a contrast with the foregoing is not justified. The Peshitta says literally:
"8. And then shall be revealed the wicked one, he whom our Lord Jesus shall finish off by the spirit of his mouth and shall render void by the revelation of his coming. 9. His coming even of him due to the working is of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders."
8.× ×ª×’×œ× ×¢×•×œ× ×”×• דמרן ישוע × ×¡×™×¤×™×•×”×™ ברוח פומה ×•× ×‘×˜×œ×™×•×”×™ ×‘×’×œ×™× × ×“×ž×תיתה
9.מ×תיתה גיר דהו ×‘×ž×¢×‘×“× ×•×ª× ×”×™ ×“×¡×˜× × ×‘×›×œ חיל ו××ª×•×ª× ×•×ª×“×ž×¨×ª× ×“×’×œ×ª×והידין
The expression "the revelation of his coming" at the end of verse 8 does not refer to Jesus. The two verses are both speaking of the same "coming" of the "wicked one." This is evident from the fact that "his coming" in verse 8 is immediately followed by the explanatory comment in verse 9 "even he whose coming is due to the working of Satan". The subject of these verses clearly is the "revelation of the wicked one", who has remained undetected as such and because of this many have not been aware of his "coming". The apostles specifically foretell the "coming" of the "Antichrist", but evidently the working of Satan is powerful enough to make his "coming" undetectable to most people. This is the reason why, when Jesus comes in his glory, he will "reveal" the "coming" of this "wicked one", at which time he will destroy the "Antichrist".
Therefore these verses are not speaking of 'the manifestation of the Lord's presence' as if Jesus' presence was invisible and needed to be revealed. But the subject of these verses and the context is "the revealing of the coming of the wicked one" and his subsequent destruction. It is quite amazing how these verses have been turned into a vehicle for teaching Christ's "invisible presence". Ironically the New World Translation renders the first two verses of this chapter as:
“However, brothers, respecting the presence of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we request of YOU 2 not to be quickly shaken from YOUR reason nor to be excited either through an inspired expression or through a verbal message or through a letter as though from us, to the effect that the day of Jehovah is here.†— 2 Thessalonians 2:1-2
From this text it is clear that the apostle was worried that we could easily be led to believe in something that hasn't taken place yet. This is exactly what the doctrine of "Jesus invisible presence" does. It makes us believe that Christ has already come, that the Lord's day has already started and that anointed have already been resurrected to heavenly life! Paul specifically warned us not to be shaken from our reason or to get excited because such a doctrine gives the impression of "being inspired" or because it comes from those who take the lead. Though it may be difficult to adjust our views I hope that this article will have helped you to come to a better understanding of what God's word really teaches about Jesus' "coming".
In conclusion:
Jesus and his disciples did not speak of a future period of time during which he would be "invisibly present". Instead they spoke of the time of his "coming" in Kingdom glory with all his angels as something to look forward to. Jesus did however promise that he would be with his disciples "all the days till the completion of the age". In a sense then Jesus has always been "invisibly present" to take care of his followers right from his departure up to now. But let us still keep in eager expectation of his "coming" in Kingdom power.
YES....WE ARE TOLD TO LOOK FOR SIGNS OF HIS COMING....AND NOT FOR SIGNS OF HIS PAROUSIA...OR HIS INVISIBLE PAROUSIA....
COME LORD JESUS!!!!!!!!
Christ's "Presence" or "Coming"
— In the light of the Ancient Eastern text
We briefly looked at a few examples that provided evidence for Aramaic Primacy1 in the recent article "Was the “New Testament†originally written in Jesus’ language?" If, like me, you have come to the conclusion that the words of Jesus and his disciple were indeed originally recorded in Aramaic, you probably will be aware that teachings that relied on them speaking Greek will now need to be re-examined in the light of the Aramaic Peshitta.
One such teaching that relies on Greek Primacy is the Watchtower Society's claim that Jesus gave his disciples signs that would prove to them that he is invisibly "present". This teaching is unique to Jehovah's Witnesses; all other Christians believe that Jesus gave the disciples signs for his "coming". In this article we will look at how the use of the term "parousia" in the Greek texts compares with what the Peshitta says in the same scriptures.
In the scriptures that we're going to examine below I first present the reading according to the "New World Translation" (NWT)2 then the interlinear English as found under the Greek words in the "Kingdom Interlinear" (K. Int.)2 and lastly the rendering according to the "Lamsa Translation" of the Peshitta. For the "Kingdom Interlinear" the words in brackets represent a transliteration of the Greek words. The brackets within the Lamsa quotes contain the original Aramaic words in Hebrew script, and a transliteration of the consonants. [The lowercase letters do not represent separate Aramaic letters but are added because some characters in Aramaic can not be transliterated with one single English character.]
Hebrew and Aramaic words often have attachments in the form of prefixes and suffixes that express the tense of a verb or refer to the persons involved in the action. I have rendered the equivalent translations of the complete Aramaic words in italics but the basic roots of the words in bold type. To make root letters that recur throughout the examples stand out, I have rendered them in maroon. The first text we will look at is 1 Timothy 3:14.
1 Timothy 3:14
NWT: I am writing you these things, though I am hoping to come to you shortly.
K. Int: These (things) to you I am writing, hoping to come [elthein] toward you in quickness.
Lamsa: These things I write to you, although hoping to come [××ª× / AThA]3 to you shortly.
This verse is very straightforward and introduces us to the Aramaic word "AThA" which is the verb "to come". The Greek uses "elthein" but other renderings are equally possible as the following scripture shows:
Matthew 11:3
NWT: Are you the Coming One, or are we to expect a different one?
K. Int: You are the (one) coming [erkhomenos] or different (one) are we expecting?
Lamsa: Are you the one who is to come [ד××ª× / DAThA]3, or are we to expect another?
This text presents no problems. The Peshitta uses a form of the verb "to come" here and the Greek text conveys the same idea as the Aramaic. Note the two root letters×ת that occur in all Aramaic words that are based on the verb "to come". Now let us look at the wording of Matthew 24:46.
Matthew 24:46
NWT: Happy is that slave if his master on arriving finds him doing so.
K. Int: Happy the slave that whom having come [elthon] the lord of him will find thus doing.
Lamsa: Blessed is that servant, when his Lord comes [×“× ××ª× / DNAThA] and finds him so doing.
Here the Greek again reflects the fact that the original text used a form of the Aramaic verb "ATA", "to come". Notice what verse 47 says about the further appointment of the "faithful and discreet slave": "Truly I say to YOU, He will appoint him over all his belongings". When Jesus comes in Kingdom power, "all his belongings" will include "the kingdom of the world" (Revelation 11:15). Obviously the slave has not yet been appointed over "the kingdom of the world" indicating that the further appointment has not yet taken place and that Jesus' coming is still future. In the next scripture we will look at the Aramaic word for "coming":
Acts 7:52
NWT: ... who made announcement in advance concerning the coming of the righteous One
K. Int: ... having announced beforehand about the coming [eleuseos] of the righteous (one)
Lamsa: ... who foretold the coming [מ×תיתה / MAThYThH] of the Righteous One
In this scripture the translator seems to have understood the proper meaning of "MAThYThA"4 as "coming" and has translated it as such. Having acquainted ourselves with the Greek and Aramaic words for "to come" and "coming" we will now compare these with "parousia":
Matthew 24:3
NWT: ... what will be the sign of your presence and of the conclusion of the system of things?
K. Int: ... what the sign of the your presence [parousias] and of conclusion of the age?
Lamsa: ... what is the sign of your coming [דמ×תיתך / DMAThYThKh], and of the end of the world?
Please note that the Greek word for presence, "parousia" is very different from the other Greek words that indicate coming [erkhomenos, elthon, eleuseos, elthein]. In the hypothetical case that the Peshitta were a translation from the Greek, it would be very unlikely that "parousia" would be confused with words for "coming". The reverse however is not true. The Peshitta here uses a form of the word for coming, "MAThYThA", but there exists one other word, "MAThYA", that resembles it a lot and can mean presence. It is easy to see how the Greek translators could confuse the two terms, causing mistranslations.
Also note that the reading in the Peshitta is very straightforward. The disciples were asking Jesus for a sign that would indicate both "his coming" and "the end of the world". In answer Jesus provided them with the signs that would lead up to his "coming" and the subsequent "end of the world". We will now look at an example of the use of "MAThYA":
2 Corinthians 10:10
NWT: For, say they: [His] letters are weighty and forceful, but [his] presence in person is weak
K. Int: because The letters indeed, say they, weighty and strong, the but presence [parousia] of the body weak
Lamsa: For there are men who say that his epistles are weighty and powerful; but his bodily appearance [מ×תיה / MAThYH]5 is weak...
According to Lamsa this text is referring to Paul's "bodily appearance". The Greek translation "parousia" or "presence" for the Aramaic term "MAThYH" is possible but probably not what the apostle had in mind, because in the very next verse he uses the proper Aramaic word taken from the root for "being present / near":
2 Corinthians 10:11
NWT: that what we are in our word by letters when absent, such we shall also be in action when present.
K. Int: that of what sort we are to the word through letters being absent, such (ones) also being alongside [parontes] to the work.
Lamsa: that just as we express ourselves in our epistles when we are away, so are we also in deed when we are present [×“×§×¨×™×‘×™× ×Ÿ / DQRYBYNN].
From the contrast with "absent" it is fairly obvious here that "DQRYBYNN" is a term that refers to being "present" and is related to "presence". In Greek the term "parontes" is used which is related to the Greek term for "presence", "parousia". The next scripture is even clearer:
Philippians 2:12
NWT: ... not during my presence only, but now much more readily during my absence ...
K. Int: ... not as in the presence [parousia] of me only but now to much rather in the absence [apousia] of me...
Lamsa: ... not only in my presence [קריב / QRYB], but much more in my absence [רחיק / RChYQ] ...
Both the Greek and the Aramaic convey the idea of "being present". It is clear that when the Aramaic writer wanted to express "nearness" or "presence" he used the word "QRYB". It is telling that in connection with Jesus' coming this word is never used but always a form of the word "MAThYThA" as is again demonstrated by the next scripture:
1 Thessalonians 3:13
NWT: ... unblamable in holiness before our God and Father at the presence of our Lord Jesus with all his holy ones.
K. Int: ... unblamable in holiness in front of the God and Father of us in the presence [en tei parousia] of the Lord of us Jesus with all the holy (ones) of him.
Lamsa: ... without blemish in holiness before God our Father at the coming [במ×תיתה / BMAThYThH]of our Lord Jesus Christ with all his saints.
There are a few things to be noticed in this scripture. Firstly in the Kingdom Interlinear it contains both the expressions "in front of" and "in the presence of". Since these are equivalent expressions this at first gives the impression of being in the presence of both God and Jesus and all the holy ones. This does not necessary imply a time period, but the NWT renders it to fit the time period of Jesus "presence". This however causes a bit of a problem because the second thing to notice in this scripture is the expression "with all his holy ones". This expression implies the moment when Jehovah and Jesus are coming to execute judgement at Armageddon. This is seen from such texts as Zechariah 14:5, Matthew 16:27, Matthew 25:31-32 and Jude 1:14-15. Again we see that the Peshitta is consistent in its use of "MAThYThA" when speaking of the "coming" of Jesus "with all his saints".
But some may say "Doesn't 2 Thessalonians 2:8, 9 speak of Jesus' presence being manifested?" Let us then examine whether this text has been understood correctly:
2 Thessalonians 2:8-9
NWT: Then, indeed, the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will do away with by the spirit of his mouth and bring to nothing by the manifestation of his presence. 9 But the lawless one’s presence is according to the operation of Satan with every powerful work and lying signs and portents.
K. Int: And then will be revealed the lawless (one), whom the Lord Jesus will take up to the spirit of the mouth of him and will make ineffective to the manifestation of the presence [parousias] of him, 9 of whom is the presence [parousia] according to working within of the Satan in all power and to signs and to portents of lie.
Lamsa: Then shall the Wicked One be exposed, that one whom our Lord Jesus shall consume with the spirit of his mouth and shall destroy with the revelation of his coming [דמ×תיתה / DMAThYThH], 9 Even he whose coming [מ×תיתה / MAThYThH] is due to the working of Satan, with all power and signs and lying wonders.
The NWT presents these texts as referring to two different "presences", implying that Jesus' presence is 'invisible' and needs to be 'manifested.' However the use of the word 'but' as if there is a contrast with the foregoing is not justified. The Peshitta says literally:
"8. And then shall be revealed the wicked one, he whom our Lord Jesus shall finish off by the spirit of his mouth and shall render void by the revelation of his coming. 9. His coming even of him due to the working is of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders."
8.× ×ª×’×œ× ×¢×•×œ× ×”×• דמרן ישוע × ×¡×™×¤×™×•×”×™ ברוח פומה ×•× ×‘×˜×œ×™×•×”×™ ×‘×’×œ×™× × ×“×ž×תיתה
9.מ×תיתה גיר דהו ×‘×ž×¢×‘×“× ×•×ª× ×”×™ ×“×¡×˜× × ×‘×›×œ חיל ו××ª×•×ª× ×•×ª×“×ž×¨×ª× ×“×’×œ×ª×והידין
The expression "the revelation of his coming" at the end of verse 8 does not refer to Jesus. The two verses are both speaking of the same "coming" of the "wicked one." This is evident from the fact that "his coming" in verse 8 is immediately followed by the explanatory comment in verse 9 "even he whose coming is due to the working of Satan". The subject of these verses clearly is the "revelation of the wicked one", who has remained undetected as such and because of this many have not been aware of his "coming". The apostles specifically foretell the "coming" of the "Antichrist", but evidently the working of Satan is powerful enough to make his "coming" undetectable to most people. This is the reason why, when Jesus comes in his glory, he will "reveal" the "coming" of this "wicked one", at which time he will destroy the "Antichrist".
Therefore these verses are not speaking of 'the manifestation of the Lord's presence' as if Jesus' presence was invisible and needed to be revealed. But the subject of these verses and the context is "the revealing of the coming of the wicked one" and his subsequent destruction. It is quite amazing how these verses have been turned into a vehicle for teaching Christ's "invisible presence". Ironically the New World Translation renders the first two verses of this chapter as:
“However, brothers, respecting the presence of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we request of YOU 2 not to be quickly shaken from YOUR reason nor to be excited either through an inspired expression or through a verbal message or through a letter as though from us, to the effect that the day of Jehovah is here.†— 2 Thessalonians 2:1-2
From this text it is clear that the apostle was worried that we could easily be led to believe in something that hasn't taken place yet. This is exactly what the doctrine of "Jesus invisible presence" does. It makes us believe that Christ has already come, that the Lord's day has already started and that anointed have already been resurrected to heavenly life! Paul specifically warned us not to be shaken from our reason or to get excited because such a doctrine gives the impression of "being inspired" or because it comes from those who take the lead. Though it may be difficult to adjust our views I hope that this article will have helped you to come to a better understanding of what God's word really teaches about Jesus' "coming".
In conclusion:
Jesus and his disciples did not speak of a future period of time during which he would be "invisibly present". Instead they spoke of the time of his "coming" in Kingdom glory with all his angels as something to look forward to. Jesus did however promise that he would be with his disciples "all the days till the completion of the age". In a sense then Jesus has always been "invisibly present" to take care of his followers right from his departure up to now. But let us still keep in eager expectation of his "coming" in Kingdom power.