07-04-2010, 02:27 PM
Hi Folks
One of the things we were taught by the WT is that, the reason we've been waiting some 6,000 years for God to fully rule, is that He has been allowing Man to experiment with independence, and trying different governments.
The 6,000 years was often referred to as "man's rule".
The problem with this line of reasoning is that, in reality, Man has never really had a full chance to experience "independence" or his own rule...
(1) God intervened with a Flood some 4,300 years ago, wiping out all living things apart from those on the Ark. (By the way... are we absolutely sure God didn't reset the 6,000 year clock at the Flood?). This was a consequence of angelic "intervention".
(2) God confused the languages at Babel... a major intervention, one might add... the equivalent of breaking your child's leg to prevent them from growing too strong.
(3) Satan claims to actually rule over the kingdoms, and at the very least is misleading the nations... meaning that Man hasn't really been able to rule properly, without this malevolent interference.
(4) The Bible actually tells us that God overthrows kings and kingdoms. How does that fit in with the idea of man's independence, and being allowed to try out different governments, if God can, and occasionally does, overthrow them at will?
(5) Biblical and secular accounts show that God has actively helped kings who were on His side. For example, Israel often defeated secular kings. Josephus also records a kingdom in the 1st century AD that converted to Judaism, and the king prayed to God and was spared an invasion.
The point is... there's something fundamentally flawed with the idea that God has essentially left Man to get on with it... clearly He's been quite interventionist throughout history... particularly prior to the arrival of Jesus.
Given these factors, what is the REAL reason we've been waiting 6,000 years or so?
What does the term "human rule" even mean, when God intervenes from time to time?
One of the things we were taught by the WT is that, the reason we've been waiting some 6,000 years for God to fully rule, is that He has been allowing Man to experiment with independence, and trying different governments.
The 6,000 years was often referred to as "man's rule".
The problem with this line of reasoning is that, in reality, Man has never really had a full chance to experience "independence" or his own rule...
(1) God intervened with a Flood some 4,300 years ago, wiping out all living things apart from those on the Ark. (By the way... are we absolutely sure God didn't reset the 6,000 year clock at the Flood?). This was a consequence of angelic "intervention".
(2) God confused the languages at Babel... a major intervention, one might add... the equivalent of breaking your child's leg to prevent them from growing too strong.
(3) Satan claims to actually rule over the kingdoms, and at the very least is misleading the nations... meaning that Man hasn't really been able to rule properly, without this malevolent interference.
(4) The Bible actually tells us that God overthrows kings and kingdoms. How does that fit in with the idea of man's independence, and being allowed to try out different governments, if God can, and occasionally does, overthrow them at will?
(5) Biblical and secular accounts show that God has actively helped kings who were on His side. For example, Israel often defeated secular kings. Josephus also records a kingdom in the 1st century AD that converted to Judaism, and the king prayed to God and was spared an invasion.
The point is... there's something fundamentally flawed with the idea that God has essentially left Man to get on with it... clearly He's been quite interventionist throughout history... particularly prior to the arrival of Jesus.
Given these factors, what is the REAL reason we've been waiting 6,000 years or so?
What does the term "human rule" even mean, when God intervenes from time to time?