Is botanical Latin real Latin? For instance, I just transplanted some Juglans nigra, stachys byzantina and mentha spicata into pots to hopefully sell at a garage sale. :D
:peace:
Yes, botanical latin is real latin, its usually a description. I don't know the Latin names for things, but, for example, I can work out that Juglans nigra must be black walnut or something similar. Nigra is "black" and Juglans, if I remember properly, is derived from "Jupiter's acorn" - i.e, a nut fit for a God.
Mavos, if you're determined and motivated there's no reason why you can't teach yourself Latin. My advice would be make certain you have access to audio texts of some sort, hearing a language is absolutely essential. I know someone who self-taught themselves Hebrew, he could write it pretty well, but when he spoke, it really was unintelligable because no amount of being told how one pronounces certain sounds really matches hearing it spoken.
But go for it. After all, even if it takes years, those years are going to pass whether you learn it or not, so you might as well be a latin scholar by the time you're thirty-four, because you're going to be thirty-four in ten years anyway.......(that's my reasoning when I'm lining up to do a marathon too, "these three-and-a-half hours are going to pass whether I run or not, so I might as well have a nice shiny medal as not...")
Thanks for that encouragement.
I also have a question you may be able to answer.
How good of a translation is the Vulgate? Seeing that there are many similarities between Latin and Greek, and the ancients were adept at translating between the two, I'm thinking it must be pretty good. I think that how good of a translation it is can be shown by the fact that most translators and textual critics will use it as a source alongside the actual Greek text. I can see why Latin would be a much better language to render the Greek in than English. English really has no inflections anymore, whereas Latin and Greek are both very inflectional.
The example I can think of, with my limited knowledge of both languages is John 1:1...
In principio erat Verbum et Verbum erat apud Deum et Deus erat Verbum
En arche en ho logos kai ho logos en pros ton theon kai theos en ho logos
I looks to me that Deum would be accusative and Deus nomative. The same would be in Greek. Theon is accusative, theos is nominative. This doesn't really show or translate into English, but it does in Latin. I actually have a copy of the Vulgate at home and I am really looking forward to reading it. That's why I really hope it is a good translation.
What do you think Malkah?
Matt
Mavos - that's not a question that can be answered in less than about ten thousand words.
The vulgate is absolutely unique, Jereome had a monumemtal task on his hands. I think the vulgate is credited as the first to translate directly from the Hebrew rather than the septuagint. It was translated from the best manuscripts available at the time (We have texts today that Jerome didn't have, but we don't actually know just how many resources he hade that have now been lost to us) but, like any translation, it has its critics and critictisms. (try Desiderius Erasmus) From a histrorical viewpoint there's nothing else like it - and it directly inluenced the Lindisfarne gospels and Wycliffe amongst others.
But whether or not its a good translation is partially subjective, but its stood the test of time - also, which edition do you have, for interest? its been updated many, many times. My Latin is nowhere near good enough just to sit and read it, but its handy for study. (As you read it you'll spot lots of words that have been brought almost directly into the English language, its like Shakespeare in the influence its had on modern English.)
Structually, yes, Latin is closer to Greek than English. In Latin, every noun belongs to one of five declensions that have six cases, - nominative, vocative, genitive, dative, accusative and ablative. (sp?)
So take Deus. It can be nominative as a subject of a sentence (Deus, which corresponds to the Greek Theos), or in the accusative as a direct object (Deum, which corresponds to the Greek Theon) or in the genitive(Dei) dative(Deo) ablative(Deo) as an indirect object, or the vocative (Deus) to indicate the person/thing being addressed. Like you point out, all of this is lost in English.
I would definately agree that its easier to translate Greek to Latin accurately (I actually find English better for Hebrew because its less word-specific) but I've never studied the Vulgate in depth. I know the place it has in the history of the church, and I can't not respect it for that.