05-26-2009, 04:39 AM
When reading why some object to the use of ‘Jehovah’ when uttering the divine name, I wonder. I’ve tried uttering YHWH but nobody ever understands what I’m talking about. I even tried יְהֹוָה, but couldn’t get my mouth form one good Yiddish consonant.
I suppose that merely uttering the name ‘Jehovah’ stirs a discomfort in some. In others who vehemently protest that it insults God, well I suppose we are insulting Yehoshua by shortening his name to Yeshua or worse—uttering his name in Greek, i.e., “Jesus.†Maybe it would be better to uttering his name in consonants as well.
So work with me on this. Just why are we so fussy with all this pronunciation dribble. When was the last time you tried to get all those mispronounced Jewish “J†words back to “Y†words or even “I†words. Because that is what they were. Yet if we are to be consistent with the argument of not uttering the incorrect pronunciation of YHWH, I would think we should get the Son’s name right too. After all, does not the scripture say “that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground?†and “there is no salvation in anyone else, for there is not another name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get saved?“ (Acts 4:12; Philippians 2:10)
And if we start preaching Yehoshua, would we then be Yehoshuans and not Christians? You see, I’m really beginning to wonder as to the motives we have for becoming so picky in one context while disregarding another. We become sticklers over mispronouncing the most prolific name in Scripture yet have no compunction to mispronounce every other Biblical name. Does this not border on silliness?
Or is it another motive entirely? You see, I go a step further. I blame those scholars who go to such great lengths and take such great exception to pronunciation that they resort to title substitution, i.e.—Lord and God for Jehovah. What is the real reason? What is their true motive? And just why was the name put there to begin with? Was it by man’s will or God’s? And by whose will was it taken away? Man’s or God’s? While I fear God, do I fear to ask men?
I really have to wonder when it comes to the Christian Greek scriptures (NT). For example, at what point did the divine name cease to exist there? Was it superstition? I wonder. For example, when Jesus said: “You must love the Lord your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind,†was he not quoting Deuteronomy 6:5 that says: “And you must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul and all your vital force?â€
Now I’m no scholar, and neither am I a great linguist or historian, but when I read of Jesus courage to turn over money changers in the temple and call the scribes and Pharisees hypocrites, triggering his own execution, was he really afraid to utter the divine name in whatever language?
Then I read all the excuses made by all those scholarly linguists, theologians and historians and their reasons that the name should cease to exist in the OT or that it never existed in the NT or that it should simply be ignored just because it is mispronounced, not only is the argument too thin to stretch in my own brain (which only gives me a bigger headache) but it really makes me suspect that their reasonings are more doctrinally driven than they honestly admit.
sw
I suppose that merely uttering the name ‘Jehovah’ stirs a discomfort in some. In others who vehemently protest that it insults God, well I suppose we are insulting Yehoshua by shortening his name to Yeshua or worse—uttering his name in Greek, i.e., “Jesus.†Maybe it would be better to uttering his name in consonants as well.
So work with me on this. Just why are we so fussy with all this pronunciation dribble. When was the last time you tried to get all those mispronounced Jewish “J†words back to “Y†words or even “I†words. Because that is what they were. Yet if we are to be consistent with the argument of not uttering the incorrect pronunciation of YHWH, I would think we should get the Son’s name right too. After all, does not the scripture say “that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground?†and “there is no salvation in anyone else, for there is not another name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get saved?“ (Acts 4:12; Philippians 2:10)
And if we start preaching Yehoshua, would we then be Yehoshuans and not Christians? You see, I’m really beginning to wonder as to the motives we have for becoming so picky in one context while disregarding another. We become sticklers over mispronouncing the most prolific name in Scripture yet have no compunction to mispronounce every other Biblical name. Does this not border on silliness?
Or is it another motive entirely? You see, I go a step further. I blame those scholars who go to such great lengths and take such great exception to pronunciation that they resort to title substitution, i.e.—Lord and God for Jehovah. What is the real reason? What is their true motive? And just why was the name put there to begin with? Was it by man’s will or God’s? And by whose will was it taken away? Man’s or God’s? While I fear God, do I fear to ask men?
I really have to wonder when it comes to the Christian Greek scriptures (NT). For example, at what point did the divine name cease to exist there? Was it superstition? I wonder. For example, when Jesus said: “You must love the Lord your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind,†was he not quoting Deuteronomy 6:5 that says: “And you must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul and all your vital force?â€
Now I’m no scholar, and neither am I a great linguist or historian, but when I read of Jesus courage to turn over money changers in the temple and call the scribes and Pharisees hypocrites, triggering his own execution, was he really afraid to utter the divine name in whatever language?
Then I read all the excuses made by all those scholarly linguists, theologians and historians and their reasons that the name should cease to exist in the OT or that it never existed in the NT or that it should simply be ignored just because it is mispronounced, not only is the argument too thin to stretch in my own brain (which only gives me a bigger headache) but it really makes me suspect that their reasonings are more doctrinally driven than they honestly admit.
sw