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That doesn't make any sense to me. Sorry.

And if that is the reasoning of the board, no wonder my friend TD left.

Maybe I need to leave your Godhead is 'wonder bread' light.

Totally on a hiatus from stupidity, because I can't fix stupid, Debbie
[/quote]


Hey Hey Hey

Deb dear I am sure TD did not leave the board because of this discussion, he did not mention this in his parting post.:giverose:

In any case I am asking Wayne to close this discussion here and now anything I want to find out I'll pm you Wayne.

Take care and take it easy no one is hijacking the board:D

Ontheedge Wrote:
How can I trust a God who had to come down to earth himself to do a job that no human could do, even his own perfect creation?


"No man can by any means redeem his brother Or give to God a ransom for him" -- Psalm 49:7


Ontheedge Wrote:
The whole concept of Jesus being our Heavenly Creator takes away from a HUMAN making the perfect atonement.


"For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things have been created through Him and for Him." --Colossians 1:16

Hi Debbie,

Don't let the Churchies get you down... :thumbsup: They are asserting a Philosophical Concept that was centuries in the making and it has to be read into the text of Scripture. Essence, Person, Beginning, Son get abstract definitions rather than the simple ones God intended in his Book.

If you want to study about Christ's Saving us and why we should have a thread on it. There are several views in theology as to why and what it means-
Tranformative (Eastern Orthodox)
Atonement
Ransom
Satisfaction
Governmental
Scapegoat
Reparation

'It ain't you Babe', you're doing alright! :friends:

Christ's blessing

designs

Ontheedge Wrote:

Blithe Freshman Wrote:
[

Ontheedge Wrote:
Dear Wayne and Farhat,

I've been taking my time on a few threads because its hard to understand other people's perception. Especially, yours.

The most confusing thing about your perception is this:

How can I trust a God who had to come down to earth himself to do a job that no human could do, even his own perfect creation?

The whole concept of Jesus being our Heavenly Creator takes away from a HUMAN making the perfect atonement.

I can accept a pre-existing spirit creature taking on a human body and living our daily trials. The bad angels did it, and a good one doing it properly makes sense for both physical and spiritual creation.

But, God himself, performing the act, makes everything seem quite impossible and pointless. If only God can get it right, well y'all might as well right me off.

Your justifying satan's side and I'm saddened to think how shallow our human thinking has to be that only GOD can get it right. I have faith in the OFFERING GOD MADE (MADE) (MADE) (MADE) FOR US. IT WASN"T GOD!!!! IT WAS A CREATION OF GOD, A LAMB, FOR OUR SINS. A LAMB THAT PROVIDED THE PERFECT OFFERING!

Adam doesn't equal GOD. In fact God doesn't equal any of us, so there is no equal atonement if Jesus is our Heavenly Father and Creator of all.

With Frustration, Debbie

PS. Forgive my tone, I'm having a bad day.

]

[Hi Debbie!
This is what was explained to me:
Jesus did not die an equal sacrifice for what Adam did, He died for everyones sins for all time.The WT teaches a diminished sacrifice.
It's that our GOD loves us ( his creation) so much HE was humble & willing to make the sacrifice neccesary to fulfill HIS law & justice for us.STOP , THINK ABOUT THIS! There is no balancing of the scales of justice Adam - Jesus. It's not just Adam's sins it's all the sins of all of us that was payed.
The other teaching about why GOD would do this instead of sending someone else, well,it doesn't make sense to a human at first. It's incredible but our Heavenly Father Loves us so much he took this on HIMSELF!!! It's not that only GOD could get it right.

I'm sure others can add much more and site scripture.
I need to go lay face down on the floor and pray awhile, when I think about this , I am overwhelmed for a bit!

much love, Blithe]


That doesn't make any sense to me. Sorry.

And if that is the reasoning of the board, no wonder my friend TD left.

Maybe I need to leave your Godhead is 'wonder bread' light.

Totally on a hiatus from stupidity, because I can't fix stupid, Debbie

Sounds good to me I can use a little more time here in the real world.

Thanks Deb for making an attempt to look into these things.:D:D:D

If Jesus is this unique one god/man I'm sure the holy spirit will reveal that to you clearly if you ask. after all it's His job not mine.
" He will teach you all things " not BB or fzubair.

Jesus asked a guy a crazy question then He gave him an even crazier answer.

17 So He said to him, “Why do you call Me good?

No one is good but One, that is, God.

But if you want to enter into life, keep the commandments.”

Here He is pointing to "the standard of good" He is getting Him to think about the standard of " Good " not mans standards but God's.

As I said earlier we look at someone who murders someone and say BAD but we fail to look inward and see that the same Evil exists in each and everyone of us.We have all broken at the very least one of His commandments and are therefore guilty of breaking all ten.

dt 27
26 ‘Cursed is the one who does not confirm all the words of this law by observing them.’ “And all the people shall say, ‘Amen!’”

James 2:10 "Whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all."

I find it interesting that Jesus said " no one is good but God " yet called Himself " The Good Shepherd "

He kept the law 100% and yet He tells this man if you want to enter into life, keep the commandments.

How can He? He, like you and I need a Saviour one who could keep the Law, take upon Himself the wrath of God for those who were without stength and were slaves to sin. Then impute His righteousness to all who believe that they are lost, without a hope of ever being righteous enough to meet God's perfect standard.
to them He gave the right to become children of God ( by adoption )


Case of the nativity re-examined closed.

My reason for the hope that is in me has been given.

Hopefully with meekness and fear.

Blessings:happyheart::heartbeat::happyheart:

Wayne



fzubair Wrote:
That doesn't make any sense to me. Sorry.

And if that is the reasoning of the board, no wonder my friend TD left.

Maybe I need to leave your Godhead is 'wonder bread' light.

Totally on a hiatus from stupidity, because I can't fix stupid, Debbie



Hey Hey Hey

Deb dear I am sure TD did not leave the board because of this discussion, he did not mention this in his parting post.:giverose:

In any case I am asking Wayne to close this discussion here and now anything I want to find out I'll pm you Wayne.

Take care and take it easy no one is hijacking the board:D
[/quote]

Bethel Boy,

I think you made several assumptions that have undermined your goals.

The Friends here are very knowledgeable about the Western Church Creeds. You kept approaching the subject as though they didn't or that you were going to bring some fresh personal perspective to the issues. That shows a basic lack of respect for the intellect of your intended audience. You seemed incapable of acknowledging that blind spot or ever genuinely considering their points.

For the most part the Friends here are seeking that simple beauty of discovering Belief and Faith. Like the disciple Andrew shouted 'I have found the Messiah!'. They have.

Take care, grow in Christ.

designs


BethelBoy Wrote:
Sounds good to me I can use a little more time here in the real world.

Thanks Deb for making an attempt to look into these things.:D:D:D

If Jesus is this unique one god/man I'm sure the holy spirit will reveal that to you clearly if you ask. after all it's His job not mine.
" He will teach you all things " not BB or fzubair.

Case of the nativity re-examined closed.

My reason for the hope that is in me has been given.

Hopefully with meekness and fear.

Blessings:happyheart::heartbeat::happyheart:

Wayne







fzubair Wrote:
That doesn't make any sense to me. Sorry.

And if that is the reasoning of the board, no wonder my friend TD left.

Maybe I need to leave your Godhead is 'wonder bread' light.

Totally on a hiatus from stupidity, because I can't fix stupid, Debbie



Hey Hey Hey

Deb dear I am sure TD did not leave the board because of this discussion, he did not mention this in his parting post.:giverose:

In any case I am asking Wayne to close this discussion here and now anything I want to find out I'll pm you Wayne.

Take care and take it easy no one is hijacking the board:D

[/quote]

I feel sorry for Knight of Faith, he starts off one subject and it ends in the trinity.
Under another heading I started it ended up with the trinity.
Perhaps we need another subtitle on this 'bored' for trinitarians, where they can thrash out and play the same discs over and over.

If that is allowed the T word is not to be mentioned elsewhere to hijack other subjects. I will put this to others.

..................


Now back to this IAM nonsense.
IAM's the name of a catfood in England.


John 8:58 Jesus said, 'I am' ego eimi. Finally, we have evidence he is Jehovah God!

John 9:9 Some said, 'this is he' (the blind man) others said 'No but he is like him'.
'That one (the blind man) said I am'.
(Yep that old chesnut, ego eimi again).

So using ego eimi logic, anyone who says 'I am' must be part of the Godhead.
We have a cured blind man in the Bible who in the very next chapter uses Jesus' identical words, 'I am'.
Thus using this logic, the cured man must now also be part of the 'Godhead', (along with Rene Descartes 'I think therefore I am', uncle Tom Cobbley, oh and the cat).

Signing off, I am vicky, here yesterday, today, and if you are unfortunate, maybe tomorrow.
Ah good sound "Reasoning" either from "a little brown book" or a "Large brown bottle":D


man hu Wrote:
Now back to this IAM nonsense.
IAM's the name of a catfood in England.


John 8:58 Jesus said, 'I am' ego eimi. Finally, we have evidence he is Jehovah God!

John 9:9 Some said, 'this is he' (the blind man) others said 'No but he is like him'.
'That one (the blind man) said I am'.
(Yep that old chesnut, ego eimi again).

So using ego eimi logic, anyone who says 'I am' must be part of the Godhead.
We have a cured blind man in the Bible who in the very next chapter uses Jesus' identical words, 'I am'.
Thus using this logic, the cured man must now also be part of the 'Godhead', (along with Rene Descartes 'I think therefore I am', uncle Tom Cobbley, oh and the cat).

Signing off, I am vicky, here yesterday, today, and if you are unfortunate, maybe tomorrow.

English has many tenses, other languages have more or different ones.
We have all but lost the second person singular.
So it is not normal to say thou, thee and thy/thine.
We have merged it with the second person plural and just say you, to you, and your/s. Other languages have not lost this. Languages are fluid, evolving, and limited. Our understanding of a concept is usually limited by our language, because we perform logical thought patterns by using language.

The English words "thou, thee, thy and thine" are translated from an emphatic Greek and Hebrew personal pronoun, stressing the identity of the one being addressed to the exclusion of all others.This is for Londoner.


Similarly other languages have tenses that English does not.
In French there is the subjunctive tense for all verbs, and there is also the historic past tense, historic present and the historic future tense, for literature. Four tenses that the English don't have and find difficulty in using.

Some Indo-European have the aorist tense.

Aorist is from the Greek: ἀόριστος, aóristos, (a-horistos) "without horizon (horistos being horizon), unbounded".
It is an aspect or, used more specifically, a verb tense in some Indo-European languages such as Greek.

Any Greek verb can be in the aorist tense.

To try to demonstrate:
In the Lord's Prayer in Matthew 6:11, it says "Give (δὸς dòs, aorist imperative) us this day/today our daily bread." 'This' and 'today' could both rightly be in the translation. But we are still putting time into the sentence. The sentence in Greek is not time related.

In Luke 11:3 a sense of continuation is implied with "Give (δίδου dídou, present imperative) us day by day our daily bread."

In contrast to the imperfective tense, which refers to an action as continual or repeated, or to the perfect tense, which calls attention to the consequences generated by an action,
The aorist tense has no such implications, but refers to
an action "pure and simple".

Teamed with the verb to be, it is a statement, not of where one was is or will be. It is not concerned about time but is more a statement from the point of view of the person.

"In general, tense in Greek involves two elements: aspect (kind of action), and time.
Aspect is the primary value of tense in Greek and time is secondary, if involved at all. In other words, tense is that feature of the verb that indicates the speaker's presentation of the verbal action (or state) with reference to its aspect and, under certain conditions, its time."


So from the point of view of Jesus, he can say I am any time in history, if he was in existence. From the point of view of the once blind man who had then been cured he could simply say I am.
(This is it, this is me)

We get confused because it is not possible to say in English this particular tense, it doesn't exist. So to use a poor substitute, we use the present tense. Then when it is teamed up with a past event, trinitarians get all excited.
To translate the aorist tense which is an aspect, as 'I am' (present) is as incorrect as it is to translate it as 'I have been' (perfect), because neither are what Jesus said. The reason being that in English these are tenses based on time.
Because the aorist tense is not telling us a time period,
it is not a contradiction to use it in the same sentence whilst discussing a past event.

The Jews were basking in the reflected glory of being Abraham's offspring, Jesus told them he was greater than Abraham. Before Abraham came into existence, at that point he is there (This is it, this is me).......... except I cannot write what he said in English, because all our tenses include a strong sense of time.
Our language is too deficient.

Wayne you will have to explain the brown book and bottle joke.
Nice work teacher :thumbsup:

designs

* I think the reference was to the Reasoning book and a bottle of beer


man hu Wrote:
English has many tenses, other languages have more or different ones.
We have all but lost the second person singular.
So it is not normal to say thou, thee and thy/thine.
We have merged it with the second person plural and just say you, to you, and your/s. Other languages have not lost this. Languages are fluid, evolving, and limited. Our understanding of a concept is usually limited by our language, because we perform logical thought patterns by using language.

The English words "thou, thee, thy and thine" are translated from an emphatic Greek and Hebrew personal pronoun, stressing the identity of the one being addressed to the exclusion of all others.This is for Londoner.


Similarly other languages have tenses that English does not.
In French there is the subjunctive tense for all verbs, and there is also the historic past tense, historic present and the historic future tense, for literature. Four tenses that the English don't have and find difficulty in using.

Some Indo-European have the aorist tense.

Aorist is from the Greek: ἀόριστος, aóristos, (a-horistos) "without horizon, unbounded".
It is an aspect or, used more specifically, a verb tense in some Indo-European languages such as Greek.

Any Greek verb can be in the aorist tense.

To try to demonstrate:
In the Lord's Prayer in Matthew 6:11, it says "Give (δὸς dòs, aorist imperative) us this day/today our daily bread." 'This' and 'today' could both rightly be in the translation. But we are still putting time into the sentence. The sentence in Greek is not time related.

In Luke 11:3 a sense of continuation with implied "Give (δίδου dídou, present imperative) us day by day our daily bread."

In contrast to the imperfective tense, which refers to an action as continual or repeated, or to the perfect tense, which calls attention to the consequences generated by an action,
The aorist tense has no such implications, but refers to
an action "pure and simple".

Teamed with the verb to be, it is a statement, not of where one was is or will be. It is not concerned about time but is more a statement from the point of view of the person.

"In general, tense in Greek involves two elements: aspect (kind of action), and time.
Aspect is the primary value of tense in Greek and time is secondary, if involved at all. In other words, tense is that feature of the verb that indicates the speaker's presentation of the verbal action (or state) with reference to its aspect and, under certain conditions, its time."


So from the point of view of Jesus, he can say I am any time in history, if he was in existence. From the point of view of the once blind man who had then been cured he could simply say I am.
(This is it, this is me)

We get confused because it is not possible to say in English this particular tense, it doesn't exist. So to use a poor substitute, we use the present tense. Then when it is teamed up with a past event, trinitarians get all excited.
To translate the aorist tense which is an aspect, as 'I am' is as incorrect as it is to translate it as 'I have been', because neither are what Jesus said, in English these are tenses based on time.
Because the aorist tense is not telling us a time period,
it is not a contradiction to use it in the same sentence which is discussing a past event.

The Jews were basking in the reflected glory of being Abraham's offspring, Jesus told them he was greater than Abraham. Before Abraham came into existence, at that point he is there (This is it, this is me).......... except I cannot write what he said in English, because all our tenses include a strong sense of time.
Our language is too deficient.

Wayne you will have to explain the brown book and bottle joke.

designs2 Wrote:
Nice work teacher :thumbsup:

designs

* I think the reference was to the Reasoning book and a bottle of beer


man hu Wrote:
Wayne you will have to explain the brown book and bottle joke.

Hi Designs,

I think your half right about the Reasoning book, and half wrong about the bottle of beer.

Wayne seems to be taking a shot at both the Reasoning book and the large print Reference NWT.

But, we'd have to get confirmation from Wayne on that one.


Perhaps, he'll give it to us, along with his next attempt at indoctrinating us with still more of the trinity theory.

Let's see, that should be trinity lesson #9,321,457.


Welcome to Paradise Cafe Trinity Discussions.

Where virtually every thread gets hijacked into a discussion of the trinity.

Like this one.

nativity = trinity???

:headbang:

Hi Vicky, Sorry for the poke at the brown book/bottle :D
book = reasoning bottle = booze color = WT GB body eye color

Let me point out this " These guys aren't just a gang of thugs " They are Religious fanatics who love the rule book and in the rule book you stone for blasphemy. Claiming to be before abraham ( He could have been claiming to be an Angel that's not Blasphemy )

Lev 24:16 is what they are after him for.

When he blasphemes the name of the LORD, he shall be put to death. Claiming to be the "I AM" now that's worth stoning for.


I'm no Geek :D expert but here are a few thoughts on 8:58 from those who are.

Greek scholar of the late nineteenth century was B. F.
Westcott
, the co-editor of the first truly modern critical edition of the
Greek New Testament. In his book _The Gospel according to St. John_
(Eerdmans, reprint of 1881 ed.), regarding "I am," he comments:

"The phrase marks a timeless existence. In this connexion 'I was' would have expressed simple priority.

Thus there is in the phrase the contrast between
the created and the uncreated, the temporal and the eternal"
(140).



William Milligan and William F. Moulton,
two of the leading Greek scholars at the end of the nineteenth century.

Moulton translated Winer's Grammar into English, was the youngest
member of the translation committee for the English Revised Version, and co-produced a New Testament concordance.

In their _Commentary on the Gospel
of St. John_ (T & T Clark, 1898), they state:

"In the clearest possible manner Jesus declares, not only His existence before Abraham,
but also the essential distinction between His being and
that of any man
. Man is born, man passes through successive periods of time:

of Himself, in regard alike to past,
present, and future, Jesus says 'I am'"
(111).


In order to establish the case that Jesus was claiming to be Yahweh, we must see in what matter does Jesus use the phrase. Does he use it to imply timeless existence and sovereignty? Or did he use it to simply identify himself as the person whom others were seeking much like the blind man of John 9:9 did when asked if he were the one healed by Jesus?

Fortunately, we don't have to look far to find the answer to our question since the answer is there in John 8:58. Jesus' usage of the phrase is to contrast Abraham's beginning with his lack of beginning. In others, Jesus was unlike Abraham since the latter was brought into existence whereas Christ always was. This is brought out more clearly in the Greek verbs John uses to contrast Abraham's origins with the timeless existence of Christ, namely genesthai and eimi:


"... the aorist genesthai 'came into being,' used of Abraham, is contrasted with the present eimi, which can express duration up to the present, 'I have been <and still am>' as well as the simple present, 'I am.' Jesus claims that his mode of existence transcends time, like God's, and his I am is understood by the Jews as a claim to equality with God..." (J.N. Sanders & B.A. Mastin as cited by Robert M. Bowman Jr., Jehovah's Witnesses Jesus Christ &The Gospel of John [Baker Book House; Grand Rapids, MI, 1995], pp. 111-112 )

"He (Jesus) chose the term that would most strongly contrast the created origin in time of Abraham with his own timeless eternality, the present tense verb eimi... Thus, had Jesus wished to say what JWs understand him to have said- that he merely existed for a long time before Abraham- he could have said so by saying, 'Before Abraham came into existence, I was,' using the imperfect tense emen instead of the present tense eimi. (This point was made by Chrysostom and Augustine, and reaffirmed by such Reformers as Calvin, and is also a standard observation found in most exegetical commentaries on John and never, to this author's knowledge, disputed in such works.) Such a statement would have left open the question of whether or not Jesus had always existed, or whether (like the angels) he had existed from the earliest days of the universe's history. Or, had he wished to make it clear that (as JWs believe) he had himself come into existence some time prior to Abraham, he could have said so by stating, 'Before Abraham came into existence, I came into existence" (by using the first person aorist egenomen instead of eimi), or perhaps more simply, 'I came into existence before Abraham.' Having said neither of these things, but rather, having chosen terms which went beyond these formulations to draw a contrast between the created and the uncreated, Jesus' words must be interpreted as a claim to eternality." (Ibid., pp. 115-116 )


"What is it about this contrast between genesthai and eimi that has led to such a solid consensus throughout the centuries among biblical scholars that the words contrast created origin with uncreated eternal existence? By itself, of course, the word eimi does not connote eternal preexistence. However, placed alongside genesthai and referring to a time anterior to that indicated by genesthai, the word eimi (or its related forms), because it denotes simple existence and is a durative form of the verb to be, stands in sharp contrast to the aorist genesthai which speaks of 'coming into being.' It is this sharp contrast between being and becoming which makes it clear that in a text like John 8:58 eimi connotes eternality, not merely temporal priority." (Ibid., p. 114)



"If all Jesus wanted to say was that He existed before Abraham, all He had to do was to use the imperfect tense 'I was.' But this would not have caused a riot and an assassination attempt. It is His use of the present tense and the way He said it that made them riot." (Robert Morey, Trinity, p. 364)


Interestingly, we find the same form of verbs used in the Greek Septuagint version of Psalm 90:2 where Yahweh's timeless existence is contrasted with the creation of the mountains:


"Before (pro) the mountains were brought into existence (genethenai)... from age to age, you are (su ei).

Note the similarity in wording to John 8:58. Both use synonymous Greek terms to contrast the creation of one with the timeless existence of the other. Rob Bowman notes:


"The word pro, like prin, means 'before,' and some manuscripts of the Septuagint actually have prin instead of pro. The verb introduced by these prepositions in both cases is ginomai: in Psalm 90:2 genethenai is the aorist passive infinitive of ginomai, while in John 8:58 genesthai is the aorist active infinitive. The use of the active voice instead of the passive voice, of course, does not affect the parallel between the two texts in terms of the created-eternal contrast. These aorist infinitive phrases are then set in contrast to a present indicative main clause in each case: in Psalm 90:2 LXX it is su ei, while in John 8:58 it is ego eimi. These two clauses are identical in terms and meaning except for the fact that the former is second person while the latter is first person; and again, this difference does not affect the parallel in question.

"Thus the tense mood forms are identical, the syntactical relations between the two verbs in each passage are identical, and the verbs themselves used in each passage are identical. In other words, it is as if John (quoting Jesus' words in Greek) had taken the relevant words from Psalm 90:2 LXX, perhaps substituted prin for pro, replaced 'the mountains' with 'Abraham' and changed su ei from second person to first person and genethenai from passive to active. One could hardly ask for a more exact parallel, unless the passage itself were actually quoted. Since the parallel in question is fundamentally one of tense (since the issue is the significance in relation to time of the present tense of eimi in John 8:58), and since none of the differences between the two texts affect that parallel, it would be safe to conclude that eimi has the same force in John 8:58 that ei has in Psalm 90:2 LXX. In Psalm 90:2, the Septuagint rendering su ei is clearly intended to assert the eternal preexistence of Yahweh in contrast to the created origin of the mountains... To be consistent... John 8:58 just as clearly affirms the eternality of Jesus." (Ibid., pp. 117-118 bold emphasis ours)

Other scholars who agree include the following:


"... The vast majority of translators see, as do many commentators, that there is a clear differentiation being made here between the derivative existence of Abraham and the eternal existence of the Lord Jesus Christ. Many scholars rightly point out the same contrasting of verbs as seen in the prologue of John as well as the same kind of differentiation found in the Septuagint Greek rendering of Psalm 90:2." (White, Forgotten Trinity, p. 97 bold emphasis ours)

"... The tense of the verb eimi is not in question. It is the present indicative tense

. A.T. Robertson comments:
I am (ego eimi). Undoubtedly here Jesus claims eternal existence with the absolute phrase used of God. The contrast between genesthai (entrance into existence of Abraham) and eimi (timeless being) is complete. See the same contrast between en in 1:1 and egeneto in 1:14. See the contrast also in Ps. 90:2 between God (ei, art) and the mountains (genethenai). See the same use eimi in John 6:20; 9:9; 8:24, 28; 18:6." (Robert Morey, Trinity, p. 364)

Finally, Bowman includes the following scholars in support of the connection between Ps. 90:2 and Jn. 8:58:


"Once again, it must be understood that the position taken here is not original. A multitude of scholars have recognized the parallel between Psalm 90:2 LXX and John 8:58 and noted its significance as confirming that Jesus' words connote eternality. Among these should be mentioned Barnes, Barrett, Brown, Bultmann, Godet, Hengstenberg, Hoskyns, Lindars, Milligan and Moulton, Plummer, Robertson, Schnackenburg, and Winer. Not one biblical scholar has ever disputed the parallel or denied that it confirmed the traditional interpretation. Unless some important considerations have been overlooked, this exegetical conclusion would seem to be as well established as any could be." (Bowman, Jehovah's Witnesses &Jesus, pp.118-119)


These preceding factors clearly affirm that Jesus' I AM statement in John 8:58 served to both affirm his timeless existence and identify him with Yahweh, especially in light of the similarities to Psalm 90:2.

Agree to disagree I'll poke fun at you and you poke fun at me:D:D:D
Bethel Boy,

Your comments show why many here see you as more Modalist than Trinitarian. Jesus is Yahweh. Read verses 54-56, Jesus identifies his God and Father as Yahweh the God of the Jews.

The Time before the creation of the Universe can only be described as timeless because it is unlike anything that can be counted between two markers.

'Eternality', you gotta love these professors trying to keep their day jobs :whistle:

See commentaries by professors Jason BeDuhn, and Edgar Foster, professor Foster has essays on the Eternal on his Blog and on theologues_dialogue.

Peace be upon you, grow in Christ

designs

Quote:
They are Religious fanatics who love the rule book and in the rule book you stone for blasphemy.

I think the Jews would stone people for anything. They did not accuse Jesus of Blasphemy at this time, though it must be noted that in Greek you can speak ill of anyone which is what blaspheme means. They stoned Stephen because they were cut to the heart, they also trumped up charges that he blasphemed Moses.
The word literally means to speak ill.

If they would stone for blaspheming Moses,from whom very few were decendants, how much more so for placing Abraham in second place to Jesus.

Quote:
Claiming to be the "I AM"

Grammar! I am is a pronoun and verb. There is no definite article.

B. F.Westcott, is talking twaddle. Which gives credence to the debate about the scholarship of the Westcott and Hort text.

So are Milligan and Moulton. The aorist tense is not about past present or future, as I have explained. Anyone can use it, like a blind man or an angel as you said. It does not mean that someone was always eternal and always will be, nor is it exclusive to Jehovah.
Quoting stuffed shirts on Greek will have about the same effect on me as quoting the WT. At the best it will make me do more of my own research.

Wayne do your own research, and we will meet in the middle.

vicky

Defintely not a modalist since they believe The father,became the Son and is now the holy spirit ( 3 different modes of God ).

I can't believe you would even mention a name like Jason BeDuhn. What a crack pot BeDuhn is :funnyface:!!! The NWT is this great translation!!! :shocked:


I get a kick out of Vicky's comment below about the text its self.


man hu Wrote:
B. F.Westcott, is talking twaddle. Which gives credence to the debate about the scholarship of the Westcott and Hort text.


Anyone who lauds a translation by 5 guys and of the 5 only 1 had a slight clue of Biblical languages.:rolleyes:

The NWT translators were: Nathan Knorr, Albert Schroeder, George Gangas, Fred Franz, M. Henschel

"Fred Franz however, was the only one with sufficient knowledge of the Bible languages to attempt translation of this kind. He had studied Greek for two years in the University of Cincinnati but was only self-taught in Hebrew." ["Crisis of Conscience"; by Raymond Franz; Commentary Press, Atlanta; 1983 edition; footnote 15; page 50.]

Four out of the five men on the committee had no Hebrew or Greek training at all. They had only a high school education. Franz studied Greek for two years at the University of Cincinnati, but dropped out after his sophomore year. When asked in a Scotland courtroom if he could translate Genesis 2:4 into Hebrew, Franz replied that he could not. The truth is that Franz was unable to translate Hebrew or Greek.

What we are left with is a very inexperienced translating committee that twisted Scripture to make it fit the Society's doctrine.

Original published statements to document this can be found in

Raymond Franz', Crisis of Conscience, p. 50 (Franz, Knorr, Schroeder, Gangas),

William Cetnar's, Questions for Jehovah's Witnesses, pp. 68-9 (Franz, Knorr, Schroeder, Gangas, Henschel)

Jerry Bergman's, Jehovah's Witnesses and Kindred Groups, p. 39 (Franz).

Interestingly, both Cetnar and Bergman set forth material that indicates that the well-known Bible Scholar Edgar J. Goodspeed had some input to the NWT. Cetnar indicates that Goodspeed was not terribly pleased with the result.

Dr. Bruce M. Metzger, professor of New Testament at Princeton University, calls the NWT "a frightful mistranslation," "Erroneous" and "pernicious" "reprehensible" "If the Jehovah's Witnesses take this translation seriously, they are polytheists." (Professor of New Testament Language and Literature)

Dr. William Barclay, a leading Greek scholar, said "it is abundantly clear that a sect which can translate the New Testament like that is intellectually dishonest."

British scholar H.H. Rowley stated, "From beginning to end this volume is a shining example of how the Bible should not be translated."


Dr. Julius Mantey , author of A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament, calls the NWT "a shocking mistranslation." "Obsolete and incorrect." "It is neither scholarly nor reasonable to translate John 1:1 'The Word was a god.'"

"I have never read any New Testament so badly translated as The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of The Greek Scriptures.... it is a distortion of the New Testament. The translators used what J.B. Rotherham had translated in 1893, in modern speech, and changed the readings in scores of passages to state what Jehovah's Witnesses believe and teach. That is a distortion not a translation." (Julius Mantey , Depth Exploration in The New Testament (N.Y.: Vantage Pres, 1980), pp.136-137)

the translators of the NWT are "diabolical deceivers." (Julius Mantey in discussion with Walter Martin)

Jason BeDuhn commentary :toiletpaper:

IMHO

BB:happyheart::heartbeat::happyheart:
[/quote]

designs2 Wrote:
Bethel Boy,

Your comments show why many here see you as more Modalist than Trinitarian. Jesus is Yahweh. Read verses 54-56, Jesus identifies his God and Father as Yahweh the God of the Jews.

The Time before the creation of the Universe can only be described as timeless because it is unlike anything that can be counted between two markers.

'Eternality', you gotta love these professors trying to keep their day jobs :whistle:

See commentaries by professors Jason BeDuhn, and Edgar Foster, professor Foster has essays on the Eternal on his Blog and on theologues_dialogue.

Peace be upon you, grow in Christ

designs

I think you mistook Vicky's comment as an endorsement of the NWT, Wayne. I think the NWT translators relied on Wescott and Hort when they felt it supported their doctrines.

So what she said was that "Wescott is talking twaddle" - that means 'nonsense' in American, I suppose, lol - and that gives credence to the debate about their scholarship. So, I think, she said the opposite to what you thought and is not giving credence to their questionable scholarship. She may come on and correct you or me or both of us, lol - if she sees this - HEY VICK!:airkiss:

All the stuff you posted about the NWT is why I don't use it any longer. I do have their Interlinear NT which makes it evident how they turned the words every which way in order to make it say what they needed it to say - and the insertions of [other] words. Deceptive, "intellectually dishonest" - I agree. I'm not sure if they still distribute the Interlinear - it's not a friend to the NWT by any means.

Sadly, Witnesses are taught that their translation is as close to the original texts as possible and they 'restored' Jehovah's name in so many places... and few would listen to someone discount it altogether as horribly wrong in too many places, as you well know.:(

:peace:
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