01-19-2009, 08:54 AM
Much has been written by the WTS about Jesus' words at Matthew 24:3, to prove that Jesus arrived in Kingdom power in 1914. And the Greek word that they have focused on is parousias, which they like, because it can be contrued as meaning a period of time prior to his coming. However, there are actually three different accounts of these words, and the WTS prefers to overlook the other two. Why?
In Greek, Matthew 24:3 reads, ‘Eipon hemin pote tauta estai kai ti to semion tes ses parousias kai synteleias tou aionos.’ Word-for-word in English, that reads, ‘Say to/us when these will/be and what the sign at/the your being/next/to and ending the age.’
In Greek, Mark 13:4 reads, ‘Eipon hemin pote tauta estai kai ti to semion hotan melle tauta synteleisthai panta.’ Word-for-word in English, that reads, ‘Say to/us when these will/be and what the sign when may/be/about these ending all.’
In Greek, Luke 21:7 reads, ‘Didaskale, pote oun tauta estai kai to to semion hotan melle tauta ginesthai.’ Word-for-word in English, this reads, ‘Teacher, say therefore these will/be and what the sign when may/be/about these begin.’
The Greek word parousias is used in similar context at 1 Corinthians 15:23, 1 Thessalonians 2:19, 3:13, 4:15, 5:23, 2 Thessalonians 2:1, 9, James 5:7, 8, 2 Peter 1:16, 3:4, 12, and at 1 John 2:28. So, I suspect that all these scriptures are referring to the same period in time. But was that the proper word? I raise this question because associates who have worked closely with me in creating the 2001 Translation argue that the entire NT was originally written in Aramaic, and then translated into Greek. And while I am not totally sold on that idea, the use of parousia in these texts does raise some question as to whether it could have been a mistranslated word.
Some Bibles (such as the KJ) have translated the word parousias at Matthew 24:3 as coming, but the problem with this is that the Greek word for coming is erchomenon… which doesn't have the same meaning as parousias. However, if you look at the Hebrew and Aramaic texts, you’ll see that the words he spoke in either language (aram. metitak) translate as coming or arrival. So, although much has been written about the meaning and significance of the Greek word parousias, it probably wasn't the word that Jesus actually used, for it is thought that he spoke in Aramaic (not Greek).
Now, it is true that the NWT translates parousias as presence, which is good, because the English word presence is derived from parousias (if that truly was the proper word spoken by Jesus). And if we were to conclude that Jesus’ Apostles actually asked about his parousias, we would then assume that the Apostles were asking Jesus when he would be present or have already arrived, not for just signs that he was about to come. So, what did the Apostles really ask?
Well, if you read the same account (about the question that was asked) in the books of Mark and Luke (as shown above), you’ll see that Mark quoted them as asking when these things were about to be, and in Luke they asked what the signs were when the destruction of God’s Temple was about to begin. In other words, they were asking what the signs would be when the things that Jesus was foretelling (his coming) were about to happen, not when he had already arrived. So, there is no mention of a parousia in either parallel account!
As further proof, note that in the Aramaic text of Mark, Jesus’ Apostles were quoted as saying, ‘Tell us when these things will happen and what is the sign that these things are near and all these things will be fulfilled?’ And in Luke he was quoted as saying, ‘When will these things be, and what is the sign that these things are near to happening?’
Also, notice Jesus’ words at Matthew 24:33, where he said, ‘Likewise, when you see all these things [happening], know that he’s near – at the doors.’ So, the signs that Jesus gave weren’t the signs of the end, but of when they were ‘about to end.’ And at the conclusion of the period when these signs are seen, Jesus will be ‘present,’ ‘have arrived,’ or have ‘come’ to bring the foretold destruction.
In Greek, Matthew 24:3 reads, ‘Eipon hemin pote tauta estai kai ti to semion tes ses parousias kai synteleias tou aionos.’ Word-for-word in English, that reads, ‘Say to/us when these will/be and what the sign at/the your being/next/to and ending the age.’
In Greek, Mark 13:4 reads, ‘Eipon hemin pote tauta estai kai ti to semion hotan melle tauta synteleisthai panta.’ Word-for-word in English, that reads, ‘Say to/us when these will/be and what the sign when may/be/about these ending all.’
In Greek, Luke 21:7 reads, ‘Didaskale, pote oun tauta estai kai to to semion hotan melle tauta ginesthai.’ Word-for-word in English, this reads, ‘Teacher, say therefore these will/be and what the sign when may/be/about these begin.’
The Greek word parousias is used in similar context at 1 Corinthians 15:23, 1 Thessalonians 2:19, 3:13, 4:15, 5:23, 2 Thessalonians 2:1, 9, James 5:7, 8, 2 Peter 1:16, 3:4, 12, and at 1 John 2:28. So, I suspect that all these scriptures are referring to the same period in time. But was that the proper word? I raise this question because associates who have worked closely with me in creating the 2001 Translation argue that the entire NT was originally written in Aramaic, and then translated into Greek. And while I am not totally sold on that idea, the use of parousia in these texts does raise some question as to whether it could have been a mistranslated word.
Some Bibles (such as the KJ) have translated the word parousias at Matthew 24:3 as coming, but the problem with this is that the Greek word for coming is erchomenon… which doesn't have the same meaning as parousias. However, if you look at the Hebrew and Aramaic texts, you’ll see that the words he spoke in either language (aram. metitak) translate as coming or arrival. So, although much has been written about the meaning and significance of the Greek word parousias, it probably wasn't the word that Jesus actually used, for it is thought that he spoke in Aramaic (not Greek).
Now, it is true that the NWT translates parousias as presence, which is good, because the English word presence is derived from parousias (if that truly was the proper word spoken by Jesus). And if we were to conclude that Jesus’ Apostles actually asked about his parousias, we would then assume that the Apostles were asking Jesus when he would be present or have already arrived, not for just signs that he was about to come. So, what did the Apostles really ask?
Well, if you read the same account (about the question that was asked) in the books of Mark and Luke (as shown above), you’ll see that Mark quoted them as asking when these things were about to be, and in Luke they asked what the signs were when the destruction of God’s Temple was about to begin. In other words, they were asking what the signs would be when the things that Jesus was foretelling (his coming) were about to happen, not when he had already arrived. So, there is no mention of a parousia in either parallel account!
As further proof, note that in the Aramaic text of Mark, Jesus’ Apostles were quoted as saying, ‘Tell us when these things will happen and what is the sign that these things are near and all these things will be fulfilled?’ And in Luke he was quoted as saying, ‘When will these things be, and what is the sign that these things are near to happening?’
Also, notice Jesus’ words at Matthew 24:33, where he said, ‘Likewise, when you see all these things [happening], know that he’s near – at the doors.’ So, the signs that Jesus gave weren’t the signs of the end, but of when they were ‘about to end.’ And at the conclusion of the period when these signs are seen, Jesus will be ‘present,’ ‘have arrived,’ or have ‘come’ to bring the foretold destruction.